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a silly rule question

PostPosted: Mon Sep 01, 2014 2:14 pm
by threelions
runners on 2nd & 3rd, 1 out

ground ball to SS,
SS tags the 2nd base runner out(no force here), throws the batter-runner out at 1st for double play.

question is,

if the 3rd base runner touches the home plate before the 2rd base runner is tagged, does the run count?

thx.

Re: a silly rule question

PostPosted: Mon Sep 01, 2014 5:29 pm
by GiantsFan14
4.09
HOW A TEAM SCORES.
(a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning. EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding runner who is declared out because he failed to touch one of the bases.


My understanding would be that the run does not score.

Re: a silly rule question

PostPosted: Mon Sep 01, 2014 7:09 pm
by Tavish
The runner has to make it safely to first for any run to score. Or any forced runner makes it to the next base for that matter.

Re: a silly rule question

PostPosted: Thu Sep 04, 2014 5:09 pm
by TheTrith
Tavish wrote:The runner has to make it safely to first for any run to score. Or any forced runner makes it to the next base for that matter.

Even if the runner is tagged out and not forced?

Re: a silly rule question

PostPosted: Fri Sep 05, 2014 2:06 am
by fast dogs
In a rundown it is different, this is still the out at 1st voiding the baserunner from 3rd from counting

Re: a silly rule question

PostPosted: Fri Sep 05, 2014 7:47 pm
by SecretAgentMan
The run will not count. The force play at first is the 3rd out of the inning the instant the runner from second got tagged out creating the same situation had it been a man at third with two out to start the play. The only time a run is allowed to score on a play prior to a third out is if no force play to end the inning is in effect and the runner crosses the plate before a tag is applied to a runner for the 3rd out.

Hence run downs, throws from the OF on sacrifice flies or on base hits wherein someone gets caught for the third out trying to stretch a hit while a runner is also trying to score are where you see this typically comes into play.

Re: a silly rule question

PostPosted: Thu Sep 11, 2014 11:13 pm
by Tavish
TheTrith wrote:
Tavish wrote:The runner has to make it safely to first for any run to score. Or any forced runner makes it to the next base for that matter.

Even if the runner is tagged out and not forced?

When a batter hits the ball he is forced to make it to first before any run counts. If a runner is on first when a ball is hit then that runner is forced to make it to second before any run counts (and so on).

The most extreme example would be a 2 out Grand Slam with a runner missing a base that can have a couple of different outcomes:

If any runner fails to touch the base immediately following where they started (runner on 3rd misses home, runner on 2nd misses 3rd, runner on 1st misses 2nd, or batter misses 1st) and the defensive team gets the appeal then NO runs count since not all forces were satisfied.

If any runner misses a bag after the one immediately next to where they started (runner on 2nd misses home, runner on 1 misses 3rd-home, or batter misses 2nd-3rd-home) then all the forces were satisfied so any runs that scored ahead of the runner that missed the bag count, but that run and any after do not.

a silly rule question

PostPosted: Thu Sep 11, 2014 11:49 pm
by lastingsgriller
Is this thread still happening?