Return to Baseball Leftovers

a silly rule question

Moderator: Baseball Moderators

a silly rule question

Postby threelions » Mon Sep 01, 2014 2:14 pm

runners on 2nd & 3rd, 1 out

ground ball to SS,
SS tags the 2nd base runner out(no force here), throws the batter-runner out at 1st for double play.

question is,

if the 3rd base runner touches the home plate before the 2rd base runner is tagged, does the run count?

thx.
12-team h2h 5X5 non-keeper
J.Montero,Pujols,Craig,Plouffe,Middlebrooks,TROUT,Gordon,Ethier,Butler
KingFelix,Cain,Price,McCarthy,Lewis,Hansen
Myers,Nathan,Casilla,Romo
threelions
Minor League Mentor
Minor League Mentor

User avatar

Posts: 753
(Past Year: 6)
Joined: 10 May 2007
Home Cafe: Baseball

Re: a silly rule question

Postby GiantsFan14 » Mon Sep 01, 2014 5:29 pm

4.09
HOW A TEAM SCORES.
(a) One run shall be scored each time a runner legally advances to and touches first, second, third and home base before three men are put out to end the inning. EXCEPTION: A run is not scored if the runner advances to home base during a play in which the third out is made (1) by the batter-runner before he touches first base; (2) by any runner being forced out; or (3) by a preceding runner who is declared out because he failed to touch one of the bases.


My understanding would be that the run does not score.
Image
25
GiantsFan14
Baseball Scribe
Baseball Scribe

User avatar
EditorCafeholicCafe WriterGraphics ExpertMock(ing) DrafterWeb SupporterPick 3 Weekly Winner
Posts: 13820
(Past Year: -57)
Joined: 12 Mar 2006
Home Cafe: Baseball
Location: BUSTER HATH ARRIVED

Re: a silly rule question

Postby Tavish » Mon Sep 01, 2014 7:09 pm

The runner has to make it safely to first for any run to score. Or any forced runner makes it to the next base for that matter.
Bury me a Royal.
Tavish
Mod in Retirement
Mod in Retirement

User avatar
CafeholicFantasy ExpertCafe WriterCafe RankerMock(ing) DrafterEagle EyeCafe SpotterWeb Supporter
Posts: 10554
(Past Year: -510)
Joined: 3 May 2004
Home Cafe: Baseball

Re: a silly rule question

Postby TheTrith » Thu Sep 04, 2014 5:09 pm

Tavish wrote:The runner has to make it safely to first for any run to score. Or any forced runner makes it to the next base for that matter.

Even if the runner is tagged out and not forced?
TheTrith
Minor League Mentor
Minor League Mentor


Posts: 408
(Past Year: 126)
Joined: 19 Jun 2013
Home Cafe: Baseball

Re: a silly rule question

Postby fast dogs » Fri Sep 05, 2014 2:06 am

In a rundown it is different, this is still the out at 1st voiding the baserunner from 3rd from counting
fast dogs
General Manager
General Manager

CafeholicResponse TeamMock(ing) Drafter
Posts: 2868
(Past Year: 417)
Joined: 16 Dec 2007
Home Cafe: Baseball

Re: a silly rule question

Postby SecretAgentMan » Fri Sep 05, 2014 7:47 pm

The run will not count. The force play at first is the 3rd out of the inning the instant the runner from second got tagged out creating the same situation had it been a man at third with two out to start the play. The only time a run is allowed to score on a play prior to a third out is if no force play to end the inning is in effect and the runner crosses the plate before a tag is applied to a runner for the 3rd out.

Hence run downs, throws from the OF on sacrifice flies or on base hits wherein someone gets caught for the third out trying to stretch a hit while a runner is also trying to score are where you see this typically comes into play.
SecretAgentMan
Hall of Fame Hero
Hall of Fame Hero

User avatar
Response Team LeaderFantasy Expert
Posts: 5954
(Past Year: 2707)
Joined: 26 Dec 2005
Home Cafe: Baseball

Re: a silly rule question

Postby Tavish » Thu Sep 11, 2014 11:13 pm

TheTrith wrote:
Tavish wrote:The runner has to make it safely to first for any run to score. Or any forced runner makes it to the next base for that matter.

Even if the runner is tagged out and not forced?

When a batter hits the ball he is forced to make it to first before any run counts. If a runner is on first when a ball is hit then that runner is forced to make it to second before any run counts (and so on).

The most extreme example would be a 2 out Grand Slam with a runner missing a base that can have a couple of different outcomes:

If any runner fails to touch the base immediately following where they started (runner on 3rd misses home, runner on 2nd misses 3rd, runner on 1st misses 2nd, or batter misses 1st) and the defensive team gets the appeal then NO runs count since not all forces were satisfied.

If any runner misses a bag after the one immediately next to where they started (runner on 2nd misses home, runner on 1 misses 3rd-home, or batter misses 2nd-3rd-home) then all the forces were satisfied so any runs that scored ahead of the runner that missed the bag count, but that run and any after do not.
Bury me a Royal.
Tavish
Mod in Retirement
Mod in Retirement

User avatar
CafeholicFantasy ExpertCafe WriterCafe RankerMock(ing) DrafterEagle EyeCafe SpotterWeb Supporter
Posts: 10554
(Past Year: -510)
Joined: 3 May 2004
Home Cafe: Baseball

a silly rule question

Postby lastingsgriller » Thu Sep 11, 2014 11:49 pm

Is this thread still happening?
Follow me on the twit! @chadmiller16
lastingsgriller
General Manager
General Manager

User avatar
Cafe WriterCafe Ranker
Posts: 3883
(Past Year: 81)
Joined: 21 Jan 2009
Home Cafe: Baseball
Location: ..skipping the light fandango.


Return to Baseball Leftovers

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 0 guests

cron