cs3 wrote:why was DLR's run considered unearned?
1 out, runners at 1st and 2nd. a passed ball allows them both to advance a base each, so 2nd and 3rd now.
a base hit allows 1 run to score. runners now at 1st and 3rd, 1 out. then a double play ends the inning.
can the official scorer make the decision that a run would/would not have scored from 2nd base on a single to the OF?
How does that work?
I think you have to treat the passed ball as an error, so would the run have scored from second absent the error, as you say?