Fantasy Baseball Cafe Forums

by **Ursa** » Wed May 18, 2011 8:51 pm

cs3 wrote:why was DLR's run considered unearned?
1 out, runners at 1st and 2nd. a passed ball allows them both to advance a base each, so 2nd and 3rd now.
a base hit allows 1 run to score. runners now at 1st and 3rd, 1 out. then a double play ends the inning.

can the official scorer make the decision that a run would/would not have scored from 2nd base on a single to the OF?
How does that work?

I think you have to treat the passed ball as an error, so would the run have scored from second absent the error, as you say?

by **Tavish** » Wed May 18, 2011 8:57 pm

cs3 wrote:why was DLR's run considered unearned?
1 out, runners at 1st and 2nd. a passed ball allows them both to advance a base each, so 2nd and 3rd now.
a base hit allows 1 run to score. runners now at 1st and 3rd, 1 out. then a double play ends the inning.

can the official scorer make the decision that a run would/would not have scored from 2nd base on a single to the OF?
How does that work?

The official scorer has to give the benefit of the doubt to the pitcher, so they shouldn't ever assume a runner from 2nd would have scored on a single.

by **rjforlife** » Wed May 18, 2011 9:06 pm

Norris getting nickel and dimed out there. Seeing eye single and a bloop floater cost him the whole start.....

by **cs3** » Wed May 18, 2011 9:10 pm

Tavish wrote:
cs3 wrote:why was DLR's run considered unearned?
1 out, runners at 1st and 2nd. a passed ball allows them both to advance a base each, so 2nd and 3rd now.
a base hit allows 1 run to score. runners now at 1st and 3rd, 1 out. then a double play ends the inning.

can the official scorer make the decision that a run would/would not have scored from 2nd base on a single to the OF?
How does that work?

The official scorer has to give the benefit of the doubt to the pitcher, so they shouldn't ever assume a runner from 2nd would have scored on a single.

thanks, thats what i was wondering