must you tag the runner?

[kickureface]

im confused now. jeter was beat to the base by the ball (you need to tag him).

today i jsut watched the end of the dodgers/mets, mets getting the double play for the win. it hit 2nd, tagged 2nd base (not player), then thrown to first and tagged 1b (not player).

whats this conflicting rules stufF?

[Pogotheostrich]

The Jeter call was insane. As an ump maybe you blow the call but you don't tell him that he doesn't need to be tagged and then tell Girardi the same thing.

[kickureface]

uh so do you or do you not??? :O

[Pogotheostrich]

Jeter was stealing 3rd. It wasn't a force out so he needed to be tagged. The ump was being lazy and said the throw beat Jeter to the base which was true but Jeter avoided the tag and was obviously safe. Then according to Jeter, the ump tells him that he doesn't need to be tagged cause the throw beat him to the base.

[kickureface]

what is considered a force out?

as in hit ball -> outs?

[Pogotheostrich]

The ball has to be put into play and a runner has to be behind the first runner on the basepaths for there to be a force out.

[LloydChristmas]

The ball has to be put into play and a runner has to be behind the first runner on the basepaths for there to be a force out.

The only exception I can think of is a runner who leaves a base before a caught fly ball. The ball must beat the player to the base he was on with no tag necessary.

[lastingsgriller]

either way, Jeter was in the wrong for even attempting to steal 3rd in that situation. it was stupid adn he deserved to be out.

[Inukchuk]

either way, Jeter was in the wrong for even attempting to steal 3rd in that situation. it was stupid adn he deserved to be out.

[Pogotheostrich]

either way, Jeter was in the wrong for even attempting to steal 3rd in that situation. it was stupid adn he deserved to be out.

Stealing 3B with no one out seems pretty dumb to me when he can score on a base hit most times but deserved to be out?