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Random question I had...

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Random question I had...

Postby angelo285 » Wed Jun 06, 2007 3:28 pm

I've always wondered why a foul tip strike three is considered a strikeout. Technically, it would be the exact same thing if the batter popped up foul to the catcher with two strikes.

Anyone know why it's considered a strikeout?
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Re: Random question I had...

Postby CBMGreatOne » Wed Jun 06, 2007 3:35 pm

Because although the batter was able to make contact with the pitch, the pitcher still "threw it by him" and into his target, the catcher's mitt. The batter stays alive if he gets anything more than a token piece of it by the pitch fouling off into the dirt or in some other direction. A foul tip into the mitt for any other strike isn't a foulout, so why should strike 3 fouled into the mitt be considered a foulout?
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Re: Random question I had...

Postby Rounders » Wed Jun 06, 2007 4:11 pm

A foul tip is a batted ball that goes sharp and direct from the bat to the catchers hands and is legally caught.

A foul out is an out caused by a fly ball being caught in foul territory.

So, based on the rules, it is not "technically" the same thing. A foul out has to be hit in the air.
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Re: Random question I had...

Postby JustAnotherYanksFan » Thu Jun 07, 2007 2:24 am

CBMGreatOne wrote:A foul tip into the mitt for any other strike isn't a foulout, so why should strike 3 fouled into the mitt be considered a foulout?


That's exactly right. With less than two strikes, a foul tip is just considered a strike. So there's no reason why it should be considered anything else when there are two strikes.
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