I have a question...

[chinch sacs]

Lets be hypothetical, say there is 0 outs and a runner on 3rd, if the batter "grounds out to first" and the runner scores, he is credited with an RBI.

But if there is 0 outs and runners at 1st and 3rd, and the batter "grounds into a double play" and the runner at 3rd scores there is no RBI awarded to the batter...

Now dont get me wrong, but doesnt RBI mean Run Batted In? If the run was scored and there was no error, who batted it in if it wasnt the batter?

Just wondering...

[CBMGreatOne]

I believe that in the case of a double play ball the contention for not scoring it on the RBI has to do with the runner advancing on the throws rather than on the contact. For instance, when a batter hits a two RBI double and the play at the plate isn't in time, but the runner takes third, they call it a double with the runner advancing on the throw, rather than a triple.

In any case, you must assume that in the event of a double play scoring a run that the team turning the double play could have thrown out the runner at home, were they not willing to concede the run for two outs. Generally in a situation with runners on the corners and no one out, the run from third on the double play ball is considered a run conceded for outs, to stay out of the big inning.

[jdh]

The difference is that with a runner on 3rd and no outs or one out, generally the hitter is just trying to get a ground ball that can score the runner, even if he makes an out or a sac fly. Since he is deliberately trying to get the runner in any way necessary, that should be an RBI.

With a runner on 1st and 3rd or the bases loaded and the hitter grounds into a double play allowing the run to score, there is no way the hitter is trying to hit a double play ball and there is no way anyone would think grounding into a double play in that situation is a positive outcome. Therefore, the hitter doeesn't deserve an RBI.