So it seems to me that even if he had tested positive (which I'm not saying he did) in 1999....apparently they are testing for it now, and he's not testing postive.........yet, he's still dominating the sport. So, what is their explanation for this? Obviously even if he did it, it wasn't giving him any more of an advantage than he usually has.
Get over it, your favorite sport is being dominated by an American. Our favorite sport is being dominated by Latinos, and you don't hear us complaining about it. In fact, we support them...imagine that.