This might be a silly question. If so, forgive my ignorance. However, I was troubled by the possibility of an interesting, if very highly unlikely event.
Imagine: In the third inning of a perfect game, a third baseman drops a foul pop-up to register an error. The pitcher goes on to reture that hitter and goes on to get all 27 batters out in order over the course of the game. No batters reached base, but there is still an error on the board. Would this qualify as a perfect game?
What is a perfect game in baseball? Author Paul Dickson in The New Baseball Dictionary (1999) describes it best with, "A no-hitter in which no opposing player reaches first base, either by a base hit, base on balls, hit batter, or fielding error; i.e., the pitcher or pitchers retire all twenty-seven (27) opposing batters in order."
Yeah its a perfect game 'cuz no one reached base...
Actually I remember hearing about this before, and somebody said it wasn't a perfect game. Kinda surprised me. I'm not really sure though, and I don't even know what the definition of a perfect game is exactly. If it's simply nbody reaching base, then yeah it seems like your example would still count as a perfect game.
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decktard wrote:What is a perfect game in baseball? Author Paul Dickson in The New Baseball Dictionary (1999) describes it best with, "A no-hitter in which no opposing player reaches first base, either by a base hit, base on balls, hit batter, or fielding error; i.e., the pitcher or pitchers retire all twenty-seven (27) opposing batters in order."
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by Doughhead » Wed Jun 15, 2005 3:56 pm 
